In answering the argument that masculine generic terms were simply part of the grammatical structure of the biblical languages, they (Poythress and Grudem) claim that all of the connotations and associations of the language are divinely established and controlled:
"In a broader sense these passages are all the more meaningful because of the fact that God in his sovereign control of history did choose that just these resources would be available to biblical writers. What is not a choice from the standpoint of a human author [i.e., the presence of masculine generic terms]... is still a choice form the standpoint of the divine author who controls language, culture, and history and uses it as he wills." [bracketed text and second italics are mine]
In other words, P&G are arguing that God intentionally established and ordained masculine generic terms in Hebrew and Greek in order to affirm the priority of males...
...[It won't] do to argue that, because God is absolutely sovereign, he controls the development of all languages. Whether this is true or not is irrelevant to the discussion, since all languages remain imperfect instruments of communication. Gender systems around the world differ dramatically, making it impossible to reproduce the formal gender distinctions of Hebrew and Greek...(P)ersonal pronouns do not have any gender distinctions in the language of the Isan people of Northeast Thailand. Think of the loss of masculine nuances there!
If we suppose that the formal characteristics of the biblical languages are God-ordained, we open an impossible Pandora's box for translators. Greek, for example, does not have a present progressive form. Does this mean we should never introduce a present progressive in English translation so as to accurately reflect God's revelation? Of course not. The ultimate goal of translation is to reproduce meaning, not form. (Mark Strauss, p131, 132 Chapter 4: Current Issues in the Gender-Language Debate, in "The Challenge of Bible Translation" ed Scorgie, Strauss, Voth)